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I have a take on this situation that I wanted to flush through you all. A contract is set in place for two sides to agree on something and so the other doesn't break it. If you purchase the vehicle that contract has been executed and any written contract before is pretty much useless once the actual transaction happens and keys exchange hands. So why are the rules so strict around the binding document before August 16th. If the transaction goes through any agreement and conversation made before hand shows intent to purchase on our end and intent to sell on the dealers end. Neither party will argue the prior agreement is null and it is only for IRS documentation. This is just a thought I had and by no means my opinion but rather me wanting to hear some peer review. What I'm trying to get at is that once the official transaction occurs and keys change hand, can we use our communication from before 8/16 as proof both parties always intended to execute (buyer purchases, dealer sells) the transaction such as emails, VIR, and deposit? I feel like that should be sufficient.
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